Roll of the dice..

salami1212

salami1212

salami1212

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Ok I was just wondering, if you were to roll a dice 600,000 times it would be in the region of 100,000 each number.. What would happen if you rolled it 600,000,000,000,000,000,000,000 times, would each number equal out to be exactly 1/6? Wouldn't the very last roll be that number that hasnt come up yet?
 
The chances of rolling any number would be 1/6 but that doesn't mean the ratio of numbers rolled would be 1:1:1:1:1:1

You would be just as likely to roll all sixes as the odds of a certain number coming up are not dependent upon the previous numbers rolled.
 
The chances would be the same, but that doesn't mean you'd get an equal amount of each number rolled. You could roll it 600,000 times and get just ones and twos.
 
Yea I know that, there is a chance that all the numbers could be 5 but that isnt going to happen. What im saying is over the course of a huge number of hands, then the numbers even out and they keep evening out as the amount of rolls get larger. So wouldnt there be a point when they even out exact.
 
salami1212 said:
Yea I know that, there is a chance that all the numbers could be 5 but that isnt going to happen. What im saying is over the course of a huge number of hands, then the numbers even out and they keep evening out as the amount of rolls get larger. So wouldnt there be a point when they even out exact.
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If you're asking whether at any point there'll be a 100% certainty that you'll have the same number of each, then no.
 
You could roll and roll and roll and roll for all eternity and there is no certainty that at any point in time will there be a 1:1:1:1:1:1 ratio between the numbers you achieve.
 
kylew said:
Dice is the singular, die is the plural.
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You sure about that? I always say dice as plural and die as singular.

As to the OPs question, if you have a perfectly fair six sided die and roll it in a consistently random manner, each number will represent approximately 1/6th of your overal sample, i.e. if you roll the die 6000 times, you get roughly 1000 'ones', 1000 'twos', etc.

The larger your sample (i.e. the more times you roll the die), the more likely you'll be closer to the exact proportion of 1/6 for each number. Remember though, because the process is random, there's always the possibility that you might not get anywhere near 1/6, e.g. theres a small chance 6000 of your rolls land on a 5.
 
kylew said:
Dice is the singular, die is the plural.
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lex-luthor-wrong1.jpg
 
Antar Bolaeisk said:
You would be just as likely to roll all sixes as the odds of a certain number coming up are not dependent upon the previous numbers rolled.
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Incorrect. The probability of two events happening is the product of the probability of those two events.

I.e. the probability of rolling two sixes is 1/6 x 1/6 = 1/36.

edit: this assumes that both dice are being rolled simultaneously.
 
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Angleboy said:
The concept is flawed, since rolling a die is NOT random, it's percieved randomness, not actual randomness.
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I assume this is because of construction, the way it's thrown and the surface it lands on?

Smithy said:
Incorrect. The probability of two events happening is the product of the probability of those two events.

I.e. the probability of rolling two sixes is 1/6 x 1/6 = 1/36.

edit: this assumes that both dice are being rolled simultaneously.
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I know what he means. He means that each individual roll does not affect the next, so roll #1 is a 1/6 chance of hitting a 6, roll #2 is a 1/6 chance of hitting a 6. The chance of hitting 6 twice in a row however is different as you explained.
 
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