I think this is wise advice.but my immediate reaction is "contact a solicitor tomorrow". I may be over-reacting though.
I think this is wise advice.but my immediate reaction is "contact a solicitor tomorrow". I may be over-reacting though.
Incorrect. There is no IHT between spouses and if he left everything to her then likely the combined £650k allowance + the residence nil rate band will be available upon the her death (barring any unusual circumstances/arrangements). If he left anything to his kids that will be deducted from the nil rate allowance passed from his estate to his wife's estate and available when she dies.The IHT zero is £325,000. However, the surviving spouse combines both so can receive £650,000 or £1m if it includes the home. However, my brother owned three houses, all of which are worth over £300,000, and on top of that we know he had at least another £350,000 in savings. That means, as we understand it, there is tax to pay, which means she is in trouble. Also, because she may well use the IHT zero for herself now, there won't be an allowance when she dies, which means the entire estate will be taxable at 40%. I think!
1 house worth approx 300k jointly owned - brothers share automatically passes to wife.The IHT zero is £325,000. However, the surviving spouse combines both so can receive £650,000 or £1m if it includes the home. However, my brother owned three houses, all of which are worth over £300,000, and on top of that we know he had at least another £350,000 in savings. That means, as we understand it, there is tax to pay, which means she is in trouble. Also, because she may well use the IHT zero for herself now, there won't be an allowance when she dies, which means the entire estate will be taxable at 40%. I think!
I'm sure it was said that the father remarried and she wasn't the children's mother?Obviously that may cause some serious family issues with their mother - hence why, unless "directly" involved..... stay clear of it yourself.
opps - missed that if it's the case.I'm sure it was said that the father remarried and she wasn't the children's mother?
As someone who has a will, I admit I don't understand half of this stuff. Ours was done a bit rushed and the advice I was given was not very good imo.
Can someone explain to me... as per the op...why has this situation arisen? I mean to say, person X has died (sorry for your loss OP) so why are the children not getting stuff? Is this because someone needs to carry out the will? Is that the executor? What if nobody does anything ever?
In my simpleton head, I feel like when someone dies it gets recorded and therefore Will processes should automatically start. Is that not the case then? What does applying for probate mean vs executing the will?
Just checked and it wasn't in the first post, they only added this in Post 3.opps - missed that if it's the case.
As I and others already mentioned there is no IHT between spouses.OH, and I forgot to mention the main house which is work £650K. That puts her well in to "taxable".