reading a few posts i think i get it now...managed to force it through my stubborn brain...
in other words:
if i keep rolling a 6 sided dice the greater the chances are that the number 6 will come up.
even though each time i roll the dice its 1/6 that the number 6 will come up.
The effect is cumulative.
If person A had one roll of the dice and person B had ten then theres more chance of the number 6 coming up for person B.
Age makes no difference.
Imagine you meet the father and he tells you he has two children and consider they are in a box, at the moment the sample space is:-
BG
GB
BB
GG
Removing a girl from the box leaves only one child in the box, meaning the sample space can only be:-
B
G
Now imagine we have a new box with two random children in it again and a new father tells you:-
Again this removes a girl from the box leaving:-
B
G
It's the same again.
Start with another random pair but this time the father tells you
The sample space is not as above, but because we have only removed the BB option:-
BG
GB
GG
It's different information that he has told you. This is the version that yeilds the 2/3 answer.
In terms of rolling dice, by presenting the daughter is identical to having already rolled that dice for one child.
You can also prove that age makes no difference by doing a probability tree starting with the daughter and working out the odds of younger and older siblings which shows all are equally viable.
OSB, even if the proof is completely rigorous there will always be some that doubt you!
I remember in the 0.999...=1 thread I posted up a watertight proof using the continuum property of the real line and still people wouldn't have it.
OSB's proof only applies to the first case and I don't dispute that, but it certainly doesn't apply to the second as he has ultimately reduced the problem to a single event (since age doesn't matter), either that the other kid is a boy or it is a girl.
Superb explanation. This paragraph (in particular the bit I underlined) really highlihgts the key concept behind this way of thinking. Thankyou, div0.
Probability often isn't intuitive and so it's easy to get confused in cases like this and think that the 'obvious' answer must be correct. I did this sort of thing as part of one of my courses at university and REALLY struggled to get to grips with it at first. It's so easy to create a counter-argument that 'feels' right and comes to the more 'intuitive' answer. But I do believe that my explaination gives the correct answer, and hopefully it's clear where it comes from.
Exactly!Its probability, not chance, or logic.
What course is it that you're doing? Is it a maths based degree?