Wonderfully logical illogical probability problem

  • Thread starter Thread starter OSB
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div0's right on the money here and seems to be better at explaining all this junk than i.
 
reading a few posts i think i get it now...managed to force it through my stubborn brain...




in other words:

if i keep rolling a 6 sided dice the greater the chances are that the number 6 will come up.

even though each time i roll the dice its 1/6 that the number 6 will come up.

The effect is cumulative.

If person A had one roll of the dice and person B had ten then theres more chance of the number 6 coming up for person B.

Correct
 
Age makes no difference.

Imagine you meet the father and he tells you he has two children and consider they are in a box, at the moment the sample space is:-

BG
GB
BB
GG


Removing a girl from the box leaves only one child in the box, meaning the sample space can only be:-

B
G

Now imagine we have a new box with two random children in it again and a new father tells you:-
Again this removes a girl from the box leaving:-

B
G

It's the same again.

Start with another random pair but this time the father tells you

The sample space is not as above, but because we have only removed the BB option:-

BG
GB
GG

It's different information that he has told you. This is the version that yeilds the 2/3 answer.

In terms of rolling dice, by presenting the daughter is identical to having already rolled that dice for one child.

You can also prove that age makes no difference by doing a probability tree starting with the daughter and working out the odds of younger and older siblings which shows all are equally viable.

What you've said there makes no sense at all! Saying "I have two children, at least one of which is female" is exactly the same as saying "I have two children, this is my youngest child, Lisa"! The information given is the same!!



Age does make a difference.

First situation (no knolwedge about age) "I have two children, this is my daughter Lisa"

We want the prob he has a boy, given he already has a girl, formally noted as P(B|G) which if you look here http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Conditional_probability can be re-arrange as the P(B and G)/P(G)

Now from a simple tree diagram this is equal to (1/2)/(3/4) = 2/3

In the second situation (knowledge of age) then this is equivalent to taking a child out of the box (very confusing 'analogy' which isn't actually analogous to this situation!) in that it reduces the probability of the other child to being a boy or a girl to 1/2.
 
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Yeah of course that's true, i know that if A and B are independent events P(A|B)=P(A). And IF event A was birth of a girl and B the birth of a boy, but that's not what they are. A is of a two child set there is a girl and B of a two child set there is a boy.

Now due the 4 different ways of having girls and boys in a two child set A and B are not independent. The 4 ways are BB, BG, GB and GG.

Therefore as you can see if event A is present (there is a girl) then P(B) is different than were we to just look at P(B)

Doing the maths P(B|A)=2/3
where-as P(B)=3/4

You haven't defined events A and B clearly enough to reflect the situation.
 
Ok i'm going to do the problem in a mathematical notation to get rid of all the problems of linguistics and definitions (once they have been dealt with).

I shall define my events as follows:

Event A - the first (therefore the eldest) child (in a set of two) is a girl; P(A)=1/2
Event B - the first child is a boy; P(B)=1/2
Event C - the second child is a girl; P(C)=1/2
Event D - the second child is a boy; P(D)=1/2

Obviously events A and B and events C and D are mutually exclusive.

A tree diagram to help visualise the problem is as follows:

treeyg3.jpg


I will use the following notation:

AںB – meaning the union of A and B, that is A or B

A∩B – meaning the intersection of A and B, that is A and B


From the OP, situation one is "I have two children, this is my daughter Lisa" and we want the probability that his other child is a boy. This equates to P((BںD)|((AںC)), solving:

P((BںD)|((AںC)) = P((BںD)∩(AںC)) / P(AںC)

= [P(B∩A)+P(B∩C)+ P(D∩A)+P(D∩C)] / P(AںC)

= [0+¼+¼+0] / ¾

= ½ / ¾

= 2/3

The second situation is "I have two children, this is my youngest child, Lisa". Here the problem is P((BںD)|A), solving:

P((BںD)|A) = P(B∩A)+P(D∩A) / P(A)

= 0+¼ / ½

= 1/2


Hopefully that should be clear enough (though maybe a bit complicated) and should be rigorous enough.
 
OSB, even if the proof is completely rigorous there will always be some that doubt you!

I remember in the 0.999...=1 thread I posted up a watertight proof using the continuum property of the real line and still people wouldn't have it.

True-dat!!

1/3 = 0.333...

3 * 1/3 = 1,

job done :p:D
 
OSB's proof only applies to the first case and I don't dispute that, but it certainly doesn't apply to the second as he has ultimately reduced the problem to a single event (since age doesn't matter), either that the other kid is a boy or it is a girl.

It applies to both cases, the second case is in essence a single event as div0 explains in the post above. By fixing the age of one child we are no longer looking at possible 2 child combinations but instead just the outcome of one birth. The proof is rigorous and applies to both cases, how can it not.
 
Superb explanation. This paragraph (in particular the bit I underlined) really highlihgts the key concept behind this way of thinking. Thankyou, div0.

Yeah seconded, div0's hit the mark (my explanatory skills are somewhat less über!!).
 
Probability often isn't intuitive and so it's easy to get confused in cases like this and think that the 'obvious' answer must be correct. I did this sort of thing as part of one of my courses at university and REALLY struggled to get to grips with it at first. It's so easy to create a counter-argument that 'feels' right and comes to the more 'intuitive' answer. But I do believe that my explaination gives the correct answer, and hopefully it's clear where it comes from.

Yeah thats' where i'm at now, another two terms of it at least! I kind of enjoy it really!
 
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