Poll: Does 0.99 Recurring = 1
- Thread starter Pious
- Start date
- Status
Soldato
- Joined
- 17 Oct 2002
- Posts
- 6,782
- Location
- London
My sig, click the picture of the molecule
Perhaps not, but you can be sure that if you put the three bits together again (assuming you don't lose any crumbs) you'll will have what you started with. In the same way if you divide 1 by 3 to get 0.3r when you add them together again you don't get 0.9r and small bit left over, ie 0.9r = 1.
Jokester
Consigliere
- Joined
- 12 Jun 2004
- Posts
- 151,030
- Location
- SW17
Reading through most of this thread and also looking at the poll so far, quite a contraversial comment you just made
what if one piece ways 0.0009r grams more than the others
having gone through the equation and some of the proofs and being sat here with an A4 sheet full of numbers I have put through the equation to see if I can catch it out
I will concede that mathematically 0.99r = 1
mainly because I want to go to bed, and more over becuase what a bunch of sad losers we all must be to spend the best part of 6-8 hours arguing over such a thing
(as my wife just kindly pointed out) (no offence intended) BTW just for the record she doesnt think 0.99r = 1 either but Im not going through all this again with her
I thought id through in my 2 pence.
The difference between 0.9r and 1 is infinately small, therefore:
0.9r = (Infinity – infinity^-infinity)/Infinity
0.9r = (Infinity – 1/infinity^infinity)Infinity
However, no number can be greater than infinity since this is the largest possible number, hence the value of Infinity*infinity exceeds our number system and is lost to some other dimension
Its like a flaw, whilst philosophically, it does not equal one, theoretically, in order to fit our number system (Which remember is comepltely made up, numbers are not real, they are a human creation.) it does equal 1 since it cannot be defined in our system.
For isntance, what does infinity + 1 = ? In exactly the same way that 0.0r9 cannot work because you never reach the 9, this cannot work because you would never read the 1. An impossible number.
The difference between 0.9r and 1 is infinately small, therefore:
0.9r = (Infinity – infinity^-infinity)/Infinity
0.9r = (Infinity – 1/infinity^infinity)Infinity
However, no number can be greater than infinity since this is the largest possible number, hence the value of Infinity*infinity exceeds our number system and is lost to some other dimension
Its like a flaw, whilst philosophically, it does not equal one, theoretically, in order to fit our number system (Which remember is comepltely made up, numbers are not real, they are a human creation.) it does equal 1 since it cannot be defined in our system.
For isntance, what does infinity + 1 = ? In exactly the same way that 0.0r9 cannot work because you never reach the 9, this cannot work because you would never read the 1. An impossible number.
Last edited:
I know or at least think it's to do with banach algebra but I couldn't say any more than that I'm afraid. Not like I'm taught it
No doubt I'll be completely wrong and you can ridicule me forever more
I'm knackered and it's been a while since I did anything that wasn't philosophical. This stuff has made a nice change of pace tbh.
Originally posted by SiDeWInDeR
Reading through most of this thread and also looking at the poll so far, quite a contraversial comment you just made
Show me someone in the thread with a degree in maths, or some semi related subject who things 0.9r=!1, and I'll agree.
Most people aren't getting the proofs, I'd imagine.
Soldato
- Joined
- 17 Oct 2002
- Posts
- 6,782
- Location
- London
Do yourself a favour and get a Maths A Level, then you'll see what you just said was complete crap.
Originally posted by Locrian
I thought id through in my 2 pence.
The difference between 0.9r and 1 is infinately small, therefore:
0.9r = (Infinity – infinity^-infinity)/Infinity
0.9r = (Infinity – 1/infinity^infinity)Infinity
However, no number can be greater than infinity since this is the largest possible number, hence the value of Infinity*infinity exceeds our number system and is lost to some other dimension
And cannot be defined by mathematics as we know it.
Yep can't disagree with that. But like the poster below me says, the only way it's not applicable is if the cake is made out of a prime number of molecules, or a number of molecules not exactly divisible by three. Which proves nothing.
It follows that 1/3 = 0.333 recurring. Correct?
Multiply each side by three.
Soldato
- Joined
- 17 Oct 2002
- Posts
- 6,782
- Location
- London
To help you (if by the off chance you use Google), you're close, here the hint, check for the "Banach Algebra, L^2 Norm", that and Ashtons Theorum will make me a happy bunnyOriginally posted by Haly
I know or at least think it's to do with banach algebra but I couldn't say any more than that I'm afraid. Not like I'm taught it
Originally posted by AlphaNumeric
To help you (if by the off chance you use Google), you're close, here the hint, check for the "Banach Algebra, L2 Norm", that and Ashtons Theorum will make me a happy bunny
I didn't use google, like I said, I don't lie about things like that
Said what I knew tbh.
- Status