I don't see why Suarez can't take them to court, it would seem to most people who are capable of thinking about it without bias... that no player would ever want a clause which allowed them to talk to a club after a certain offer, but not have that offer excepted. It is 100% useless, so the situation becomes, did Liverpool fiddle the wording slightly so at a fairly normal glance you would assume it to be a completely standard release clause. Later on when someone offers it, you read it and realise that its writen in a way that doesn't say they have to accept the offer, just let the player talk to the club.
As said no player EVER would gain anything at all in any way by a release clause where the fee doesn't actually trigger a "release". So I would say a player has absolutely ever right to take their club to court and let the courts decide if the club misled and/or changed the contract to be purposefully misleading about a common clause.
The question is did Suarez and his agent agree and sign to the clause as it is now in full knowledge, or did they assume it was a "normal" release clause because they would have entirely no reason to believe it would be a "release clause" without any release in it. The other question is did Liverpool purposefully mislead Suarez and his agent with an intentionally convoluted clause intending to mislead, or maybe more importantly, will the courts believe they did.
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