Caster Semenya could be forced to undertake hormone therapy for future Olympics

A ton of PED's....
Because they are choosing to pursue competition in a different gender class.

*cba to research if they class as PED's, given the fact estrogen is banned from men's competition, I should hazard a guess the reflective for the other side should be the same.
 
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This is just not true, males have a clear advantage in athletics
Which is what?
Which is caused by exactly what?
Which is scientifically* proven where?
Which is proven in which individuals in which events?

These are the questions that science hasn't yet answered, which is why the governing bodies are having to half-ass it by saying it's now down to organisations' subjective opinions.
If it were so 'clear' then they'd clearly have a more definitive ruling on it.

In addition, you're still assuming that XY = male, despite evidence to the contrary even in that limited scope of definition.
My point is that this is not where you draw the line, which is what the science so far has generally asserted.

*Proven by science, rather than assumed by newspapers.

you're trying to deliberately muddy the waters by referring to female intersex conditions but those have nothing to do with the controversy or what is being discussed here.
There's no muddying going on from me, mate. The waters are already so muddy it's giving off hydrogen sulphide!
You're agruing on the basis of appearance, without the science being available to give it a reliable and valid context.

Because of that you completely missed or didn't understand the point being made re: the boxer being masculine.
I'm not addressing that specific point, so who cares?

Don't just take my word for it, here's a developmental biologist, it's pretty apparent this individual doesn't have Swyer, that's the point re: looking masculine.
It's pretty apparent that the context of the discussion is "IF" the individual has Swyer then they would only have a masculine appearance "IF" they'd undergone treatment.
It is not a definitive answer as to whether they do or do not have Swyer, nor any other condition.
I don't use *******, so I don't know/care what it's in response to, but it does not focus on the various other DSDs, nor does it address the fact that some untreated XY DSDers with various conditions have still exhibited biological appearances, behaviours and responses that are regarded as definitively female.

You want to avoid that and go down some tangent re: the Paralympics
ME???!!!
This is your tangent, mate.
You're the one who brought that one up... I never even mentioned it until you put your oar in, and so far you've just rowed yourself round in circles with it.

but the point there is simply re: representation, if people feel strongly that intersex males with male advantages should still be able to compete then give them their own event and if you're unsure or if you believe there is some disadvantage for them vs regular males i.e. a disability then we have those games for that purpose.
Again, the big "IF" as to whether they actually have an advantage, and "IF" that is due to their condition.
Until that "IF" is resolved with robust scientific determination, it's just subjective wittering.

And on that topic now we've got another controversy for the Paralympics
Trans-gender = Elective alteration, not a natural condition = Same as doping = Ineligible to compete as female.
Simple enough to draw that line...

It seems to be a common tactic to try and obfuscate this issue, similar thing happened as a side effect of the Semenya reporting but more unintentionally and related to publications trying to be sensitive with it.
If you're going to publicly destroy someones' life like that, you have to make all the information public for complete transparency.
As is, I'm not sure we have all the official findings yet, and it's unclear because of the repeated lying from the governing bodies around Semenya's and other cases.
No-one needs to obfuscate anything when it's already mired in such a lack of transparency.

When things are framed as "woman with naturally higher testosterone" (woman being used as a polite term re: social gender) then people get confused and think "that's a bit unfair, doesn't Michael Phelps have a natural advantage too" etc.
Of course they do because, as you know, there are plenty of female conditions that result in the same.
Now that the DSD can of worms has been opened, they're finding even more questions that need answering, and an ever-increasing need for things to be framed very precisely, for which we do not have that precision yet.

When in reality it's a male person who had some genetic issue that impacted the development of "her" penis which didn't fully form/balls didn't drop and so was raised as if "she" was a girl. But it would be crass for papers to go into that detail so it's left with the polite description that causes confusion.
Presumed male.
If it's crass, why are they reporting on it in the first place, especially when they're only speculating?
 
Which is what?
Which is caused by exactly what?
Which is scientifically* proven where?
Which is proven in which individuals in which events?

Just to be clear - are you stating that you don't believe males (in general) have an advantage over females in the majority of athletics events?

Why do you think we separate male and female competitors?

This is your tangent, mate.
You're the one who brought that one up... I never even mentioned it until you put your oar in, and so far you've just rowed yourself round in circles with it.

It was a pretty clear point - if you think there is a difference in ability/potential between male intersex with some male advantage and regular males then those differently abled people would be better catered for in the Paralympics with events dedicated to them

If, alternatively, you don't think there is a difference in ability/potential between intersex males and regular males then problem solved, they just go in the male category at the regular Olympics.
 
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The whole point of separating athletes into "men" and "women" is in an attempt to make sport "fairer" and more exciting to watch.

It is clear now that "gender" is failing to do that adequately. So lets look at other methods?

Maybe on a per sport basis:

Boxing - you get put in a class depending on how hard you punch, your reach and maybe some aerobic measure.

Running - 100m for eg. one division for <10secs, one for >10secs.

High jump - your class is determined by your PB.

Tennis - bleep test, plus speed of serve/forehand/backhand average.

Problem is that the vast majority of "women" would end up in the 2nd/3rd division of competition being beaten by 40+ year old blokes, but at least it would be "fair"!

In an ideal world, anyone should be able to compete in a fairly competitive setting, but how to achieve it? Is there a way of dividing up a population into classes that promote competition without there being "unfair" edge cases?
 
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Running - 100m for eg. one division for <10secs, one for >10secs.

That makes very little sense, essentially awarding a medal for coming in X000th place or something because you decided that some cut-off of slow runners defined only by their slowness should arbitrarily get a medal.

Some sports have a handicap to keep things interesting, you're no longer competing to see who the best is then.

Beyond that it's mostly just based in fact - are you male or female, are you the correct age for the age range, are you within the weight limits where weight limits apply etc..

If you wanted to segregate sprinters by height or length of their legs that might be different.

In an ideal world, anyone should be able to compete in a fairly competitive setting, but how to achieve it? Is there a way of dividing up a population into classes that promote competition without there being "unfair" edge cases?

Yes, remove the unfair edge cases. They could have separate Paralympics events for DSD people and for trans people.

For example a "trans woman" has been though male puberty so has an advantage over women but if she's also suppressing her testosterone then she's at a disadvantage vs regular men ergo her medical condition is impacting her performance and we have a set of games for people whose disability/medical condition impacts their performance.
 
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Taskmaster is clearly deluded or trolling.
Does it in every thread he chooses to grace.
Does what he can to assert himself above others and refuses to acknowledge any counter point to his rhetoric.

Which is what?
Which is caused by exactly what?
Which is scientifically* proven where?
Which is proven in which individuals in which events?
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_Olympic_records_in_athletics

Pretty definitive list of males outperforming females in every athletic Olympic sport.
Just looking at those records, there's a good 10-15% between every record held by a Male and Female.
Hence male advantage.
 
Just to be clear - are you stating that you don't believe males (in general) have an advantage over females in the majority of athletics events?
Just to be clear - Nope.

Why do you think we separate male and female competitors?
Why do you think science is now arguing over whether competitors are male or female?

It was a pretty clear point - if you think there is a difference in ability/potential between male intersex with some male advantage and regular males then those differently abled people would be better catered for in the Paralympics with events dedicated to them
Oh, it's a "clear point", now... A minute ago it was muddying the waters and avoiding issues.

If, alternatively, you don't think there is a difference in ability/potential between intersex males and regular males then problem solved, they just go in the male category at the regular Olympics.
'Potential' has no place in this debate. Ability doesn't really belong either, as being technically able to do something doesn't mean they can do it in reality - Actual performance is the only concern and must be demonstrated and proven to be a result of genetic condition to determine advantage. Without that, it's just opinion toward one side or the other.

If advantage as a female is thusly proven, then it's an advantage not a disability as far as that athlete goes.
If they're proven 'too male' to compete as female, then they're just male and if they're not as good as other athletes then that's all they are. There is no disability.

So it still rests on what science has yet to provide, but either way they don't qualify as disabled. You're back to rowing in circles.

*points to all the Olympic world records.*
That part was 'clearly' rhetorical, but never mind....

How many of these records are due to the athlete having a confirmed DSD, which is confirmed to have afforded them an advantage not commensurate with the sex as which they competed, and in that particular event, though?
If you can so easily cite the differences between male and female based on a set of records, you must surely know why the differences occur and thus easily determine whether DSD is an advantage using the same reasoning?

The whole point of separating athletes into "men" and "women" is in an attempt to make sport "fairer" and more exciting to watch.
It is clear now that "gender" is failing to do that adequately. So lets look at other methods?
Maybe on a per sport basis:
This separation is what science is currently arguing, with assertions that DSDers only have advantages in certain events...

Problem is that the vast majority of "women" would end up in the 2nd/3rd division of competition being beaten by 40+ year old blokes, but at least it would be "fair"!
Athletes like Chand are the problem, in that they are "women" with confirmed XY chromosomes and internal testes, massive testosterone and all the 'male' stuff, yet still derive no advantage precisely because of their specific conditions. They're more 'male' than most DSDers, yet are not excluded from competition. Is that 'fair'?

Is there a way of dividing up a population into classes that promote competition without there being "unfair" edge cases?
1/. Determine if there actually is an advantage.
2/. Determine if that advantage is unfair.

In an arena where those who already have some sort of advantage over the average athlete rise to the top, the notion of 'fairness' is already subjective enough that you could debate the whole field... which is what everyone is doing.
Without a much more solid grounding in science, I don't think you can make it fair.

What is certainly unfair is publicly ripping the athletes apart before anything has even been established. This is very private, personal stuff and should not be disclosed no matter what the findings, without the athlete's specific consent. If you disagree, I'll happily challenge and speculate about your sex in public and we'll see how you feel about it then.

For example a "trans woman" has been though male puberty so has an advantage over women but if she's also suppressing her testosterone then she's at a disadvantage vs regular men ergo her medical condition is impacting her performance and we have a set of games for people whose disability/medical condition impacts their performance.
Paralympians are disabled either by natural conditions, or by events beyond their control and intent, which result in a disadvantage. They do not choose to be disabled.
Trans-athletes artificially alter themselves by choice - It's their choice and intent to be disadvantaged. Intentional disablement in order to compete is not allowed under Paralympic rulings.

As already stated, until there is scientific consensus over whether DSDers fall definitively into either sex, advantage against females cannot be established and they are not considered disabled against males.

Does it in every thread he chooses to grace.
Does what he can to assert himself above others and refuses to acknowledge any counter point to his rhetoric.
Says the love-child of ad hominem and numerous other logical fallacies...
You're like the wimpy kid who loudly eggs on a school bully.

A meaningless list of numbers that do not actually answer any of the questions. It just shows men win. It doesn't detail why, or shed any light on whether DSDs afford any advantage.

What is the actual advantage, what causes it, where is the science that proves it, where is the proof of it in individuals... and specifically where is all this in the DSD cases?
How are you not able to provide these answers?
 
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