Soldato
- Joined
- 25 Nov 2005
- Posts
- 12,608
I can't find precise numbers for example this saysFunnily enough, while that may be true of the East, it's not true of the UK: for example, in WW1 the upper classes percentage-wise had more deaths than the working classes.
Cite.
andIn 1912 only about 20% of the population of Britain was middle class. (To be considered middle class you would normally need to have at least one servant). In 1912 well-off people lived in very comfortable houses. However, to us, middle-class homes would seem overcrowded with furniture, ornaments, and knick-knacks.
At the beginning of the 20th century surveys showed that 25% of the population of Britain were living in poverty. They found that at least 15% were living at subsistence level. They had just enough money for food, rent, fuel, and clothes. They could not afford ‘luxuries’ such as newspapers or public transport. About 10% were living below subsistence level and could not afford an adequate diet.
Life in 1912 - Local Histories
By Tim Lambert The Middle Class In 1912 only about 20% of the population of Britain was middle class. (To be considered middle class you would normally need to have at least one servant). In 1912 well-off people lived in very comfortable houses. However, middle-class homes would seem overcrowded...
localhistories.org
I doubt much changed in 2 years at outbreak of WW1
So that leaves 55% unaccounted for but looking at the chart on this article
Inequality 'worst since second world war'
Academic Danny Dorling says the last time the best-off took as big a share of all income as they do today was in 1940, two years before the publication of the Beveridge Report
www.theguardian.com
54% of the population were in the bottom 10% so perhaps be generous and say 10% were upper class
That means out of a population of 36million people, only 30% would have been officer material or 10.8million and 19.98million as troops, in total there was circa 240k Officers which is 2% of total potential vs 3million total troops or 15% of total potential
Of which according to your link 17% officers died vs 12% soldiers which was 40,800 vs 360,000 so it's pretty much for every officer dead, 9 troops are dead
And only 2% of the well off went to war while 15% of the poor went to war basically a 7 to 1 ratio
So I'm not sure how this means it's not true that more poor people die in wars than rich people ?
Pretty sure given the amount of Generals dead in the last year in Ukraine it's statistically disproportionate the death of Generals to ethnic minorities when you take the % of total generals in isolation which is a poor way to deal with the statistics of overall deaths