No it doesn’t? One actively counters the wording in the act, the other doesn’t.
What are you on about? I post the exact wording of the relevant act/ section before... S1. Criminal damage act 1971
1Destroying or damaging property.
(1)A person who without lawful excuse destroys or damages any property belonging to another intending to destroy or damage any such property or being reckless as to whether any such property would be destroyed or damaged shall be guilty of an offence.
I covered 'lawful excuse in my previous post, the statue was obviously damaged, the statue did belong to another party (it was a listed monument looked after by the local authority) and the intent to cause the damage is clear.
There is zero requirement for their to be a net loss to the owner in a financial sense. So there is no lawful defence in UK law to criminal damage to claim that the damage inadvertently caused the value of the damaged item to rise.
To be clear it would not even matter if that was the intention of the person causing the damage (to raise the value of the item by their actions) if they believed that the own would not consent to them causing the damage in the 1st place!