Im sorry you cant see why then. I have explained it thoroughly.
where? Because it was at X rate at 6am?
I have already answered that but since you didn't seem to understand I'll try another example.
Suppose the FTSE opens at 6000... suppose it is a really volatile day and it rises to 6204 after lunch on the back of say non farm payroll figures... it then closes later at 6143 (maybe with further detail the figures wasn't so bullish)...
Did the FTSE finish up that day? Or if someone said the FTSE was up that day at some point in the afternoon would they be correct? Yes!
Yet according to your logic because it isn't at the highest point it has been at 6204 then it somehow isn't 'up'?
Do you not see why that is wrong? Why in the context of that trading day the FTSE is still up and it doesn't have to be at the highest point it has been at within that time period for that statement to be true but rather it just needed to be higher than where it opened.
Was GBPUSD higher at the time I made my statement than it was at the start of today - yup! Was it higher than some arbitrary time this morning picked by you for the purpose of arguing some point you're still unable to explain - nope... but so what? So far you're not sure what you're arguing and the fact you're using to make an argument with isn't really relevant nor does it contradict the post in the first place.