Surely if you value a fetus in any way then an abortion doesn't 'just' affect a woman's body though? It affects a woman's body and the fetus.
I will acknowledge using the world 'value' does lead thoughts in a certain direction, but what would a better word be? I would argue it's less leading than failing to acknowledge the existence of a fetus at all, which the 'it only affects women's bodies' statement does.
Kind of sounds like you're agreeing with me about the 'it only affects women's bodies' not being a very useful argument though
However if you do not value a 3 day-fertilized egg anymore than a bunch of skin cells on your arm, then it does 'just' affect a woman's body though?
Is a 3 day-fertilized egg to be considered the same as a 6 month old fetus? - This is something you often note is lacking in the arguments from the vocal pro-life supporters, preferring instead the tendency for hysterical over-reactions and "doom scenarios" of aborting 8 month 3 week old babies.
This is the round-about issue sadly.
Indeed the word
value tends to have inferred connotations which get in the way of what is really the issue. Also it is arguable to say that even "fetus" can cause an emotive response in people which can affect their judgement, it does not adequately reflect the various stages of embryo development to reality and people start conjuring up images in their mind of fit-healthy babies being "terminated", rather than a cluster of several hundred cells that is maybe a few days since fertilization. I would honestly suggest the appropriate term in this discussion is simply "life". Is it, or Isn't it?
If you define "life" as being from the moment of conception, then you will of course "value" that and as such can argue it does not just affect a woman's body.
If you define "life" as being when the fetus becomes viable outside the womb, with the help of medical technology and knowledge, then it's quite possible that little to no value may be attributed to it, or a varying amount based upon time.
As such the argument of whether it "only" affects the woman comes back around to
when do you define "life" ?
If it's from conception then of course any action taken will affect both the mother and the embryo / fetus (depending on development stage)
If it's from viability though, it could easily by argued that the only person being affected
is the woman.
So no, I wouldn't say it's not a very useful argument, but I will concede that depending upon the person's view of when "life" occurs, it may be considered valid or invalid
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