First, is the drug actually overdosed in order to compensate for the degradation in the liver? From what the article and my basic knowledge suggests is that yes? However, that's the thing I couldn't work out....
Second, is that dosing such that it would be blood toxic from a normal dose?Bypassing 1st pass seems to have less of an effect - so I guess not? What do you think?
Third, is the way the drug is manipulated by the liver in any way related to the potency?I would say it's how the drug was designed to react WITH the liver rather than the other way round?
Fourth, Could the liver inhibition actually reduce liver toxicity as less damage is done by and to the compound?I guess if the drug potency was lower, and you took grapefruit with it, then you'd need less high dose, and spend less money, and also cause your liver the swell less?
There are so many complexities here that without studies it is hard to be sure, however, based on pure logic, if this was a huge problem we would be well aware of it by now and i am very reluctant to read much into a cherry picked headline grabbing piece of BBC pseudo science
Agreed entirely. I think we're talking extreme cases here rather than just the norm. However, this phenomenon has been around for years.