You have jumped into an ongoing discussion and misunderstood what people are saying, we're not talking about "relative" poverty but about "absolute" poverty, the poster we're arguing with believes "absolute" poverty is rife in the UK affecting thousands lol.
I see what's going on, probably the average food bank user isn't in absolute poverty if they're scraping by, skipping meals, using payday lenders to cover the rent, etc. But as written it's a pretty fine line to draw - I would argue that being so poor as to skip meals puts you closer to absolute than relative poverty (according to the earlier definitions).
Also, who's to say there aren't thousands in absolute poverty in the UK? I would suggest many beggars are in absolute poverty, since they have little access to any of the things in the definition (food, safe drinking water, sanitation facilities, health, shelter, education and information). There are probably several thousand in London alone.
Anyway the better question is why all the dismissal of using relative poverty in the UK? The earlier definition ("Relative poverty is the condition in which people lack the minimum amount of income needed in order to maintain the average standard of living in the society in which they live.") is misleading.
The current definition used by the Gov is "a household income of less than 60% of contemporary median household income". In 2011/12 the median household income was £23,200, so relative poverty for that year was households earning less than £13,920.
So estebanrey is way off - relative poverty isn't just "worse than average", it's earning substantially less than even the
middle (median) earners, who themselves are earning less than the
average (mean) because of the massive income inequality in the UK.
Being in relative poverty in the UK might be better than many places, but it can still be a miserable existence.